Crítica de la razón (moderna, Occidental) impura

Este artículo plantea una serie de preguntas muy directas, cuando no simples. ¿Cómo y por qué asumimos que el conocimiento moderno es universal, pese a su genealogía europea y su procedencia histórica reciente? ¿Qué justifcación tenemos para considerar tal cosa superior a los conocimientos premodernos de Occidente, y a los conocimientos autóctonos del no Occidente? ¿Tenemos, en resumen, motivos para suponer que el conocimiento occidental moderno trasciende las circunstancias de su surgimiento histórico y geográfco y de ese modo que las ciencias sociales son «verdaderas» para cada quien, aun cuando hacerlo sea privilegiar lo moderno y lo occidental, sobre lo premoderno y lo no occidental?

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